March 4, 200719 yr This is a little OT, but the first gen BMW 325iX ('91 and earlier) used a viscous coupled AWD system (as far as I can determine, very similar to a Subaru with 5MT.) This car had a 37F/63%R torque split. How is a non 50-50 torque split even possible with a viscous coupling? I.e. it seems that all a viscous coupling can do is equalize the torque going to the front and rear axles by locking them together as the fluid in the viscous coupling thickens up. I'm just wondering if it's possible to shift the drive bias of a viscous coupled MT Subaru more towards RWD (without changing to a DCCD type electronic center differential type transmission.) Any and all theories are welcomed! (Unless they involve magical torque distributing elves living in the BMW transmission.) Nathan
March 4, 200719 yr I think it has something to do with the arrangement of the plates in the viscous unit.
March 4, 200719 yr This may help: http://www.autozine.org/technical_school/traction/tech_traction_4wd_2.htm and this: http://www.autospeed.com/cms/article.html?&A=0920
March 5, 200719 yr The arrangement of the plates, and the size and placement of the holes can determine the split. nipper
March 5, 200719 yr Author This may help: http://www.autozine.org/technical_school/traction/tech_traction_4wd_2.htm and this: http://www.autospeed.com/cms/article.html?&A=0920 Very interesting. Thanks, guys. I have some "grist for the mill" now. Nathan Also, for those who may be interested in the mechanical BMW AWD system, here's an exploded diagram. I think this is for the auto trans version. http://www.garlington.biz/Ray/BMW/xfercase.htm
Please sign in to comment
You will be able to leave a comment after signing in
Sign In Now